Sura al talaq says the waiting period for marriage according to the divorce statistics is 3 months before women can remarry. That should be enough. Rather than a 3 month waiting period for those who have menstruated. That should be enough. Then it says 3 months for those who have NOT menstruated. If both times are the same why mention it at all? If the waiting period is 3 months before menstruating and three months after, this is just a statistical statement As Ahu hinted to me. There are Muslims who do not dare to take it literally and excuse it with their own interpretations to protect their personal goals in this world. By saying it applies to those who have menopause and not girls who have not reached puberty. Menopause is common in the 50s. No one marries old women today or at the time Muhammad lived. Most are not fertile after the 40s. If they get married and cannot have children, why mention «those who have not menstruated»? Are they not capable of making the right choices? This can be voice, mood swings, lack of appetite, sleep problems. This lasts for a whole year straight. Then. Why wait 3 months? Killed it. I remember before the arrival of Islam in Persia the age was 15 years. Long enough after puberty, at that time without school and work.